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Polymerase Chain Reaction MCQ Questions & Answers

Polymerase Chain Reaction MCQs : This section focuses on the "Polymerase Chain Reaction". These Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) should be practiced to improve the Polymerase Chain Reaction skills required for various interviews (campus interview, walk-in interview, company interview), placement, entrance exam and other competitive examinations.




Question 1

cDNA libraries are produced from ______________________

A. ribonucleic acids
B. messenger RNAs
C. transfer RNAs
D. ribosomal RNAs

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Question 2

Restriction maps

A. allows comparison between DNA molecules without the need to determine nucleotide sequence
B. allows comparison between DNA molecules but requires to determine nucleotide sequence
C. does not allow comparison between DNA molecules
D. none of the above

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Question 3

PCR is used

A. to diagnose genetic diseases
B. to solve crimes
C. to study gene function
D. all of these

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Question 4

Which of the following is correct?

A. HIV is a retrovirus that kills human helper T cells
B. Causes acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS)
C. Cripples the immunity systems
D. All of the above

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Question 5

Polymerase chain reaction basically consists of

A. two steps
B. three steps
C. four steps
D. five steps

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Question 6

Which of the following infection(s) can be diagnosed by the use of polymerase chain reaction?

A. HIV-1 and HIV-2 viruses
B. Hepatitis B virus
C. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
D. All of these

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Question 7

Which of the following can be used to clone DNA sequence of size larger than 25 kb?

A. Yeast artificial chromosome
B. SV40
C. Plasmid
D. Bacteriophage

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Question 8

Southern blotting involves

A. electrophoresis of DNA molecules and then blotting the separated DNA bands followed by incubation
B. electrophoresis of DNA molecules and then blotting the separated RNA bands followed by incubation
C. electrophoresis of DNA molecules followed by incubation
D. electrophoresis of RNA molecules and then blotting the separated RNA bands followed by incubation

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Question 9

Bacterial artificial chromosomes are the __________________ of bacterial cells.

A. Polymerase enzyme
B. Proteases
C. F-factors
D. Exonucleases

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Question 10

Which enzyme is active at 72° in the polymerase chain reaction?

A. isomerase
B. exonuclease
C. polymerase
D. endonuclease

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Question 11

From a single molecule of DNA, PCR can make

A. one additional copy
B. hundreds of copies
C. thousands of copies
D. millions of copies

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Question 12

The endonuclease HaeIII recognizes ______________________ sequence.

A. mono-nucleotide
B. bi-nucleotide
C. tri-nucleotide
D. tetra-nucleotide

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Question 13

Bactriophages absorb to a bacterial surface and inject the phage DNA through the

A. cell wall into cytosol
B. cell wall into plasmamembrane
C. both (a) and (b)
D. cell wall into endoplasmic reticulum

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Question 14

RNA populations can also be used as PCR templates after reverse transcription into

A. c DNA
B. t RNA
C. m DNA
D. r RNA

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Question 15

Additional mono saccharides are added in Golgi to produce

A. either high mannose type oligosaccharide or a complex type
B. either fructose type monosaccharide or a complex type
C. either high sucrose type polysaccharide or a complex type
D. none of the above

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Question 16

Transformation means

A. formation of a pilus
B. acquiring DNA from the bacterial cell environment
C. plasmid containing a F factor
D. F+ and F- strains of bacteria

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Question 17

When was the nucleotide sequence of a viral genome first elucidated?

A. 1977
B. 1988
C. 1999
D. 2002

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Question 18

The original enzyme(s) used in PCR reaction is/are known as

A. E. coli DNA polymerase
B. E. coli RNA polymerase
C. Taq polymerase
D. All of the above

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Question 19

The efficiency of amplification in PCR in later cycles is reduced due to

A. reduction in substrate concentration
B. insufficient enzyme and time to synthesize mass quantity of DNA
C. build up of PCR product which competes with primers for hybrid formation
D. all of these

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Question 20

PCR is an abbreviation for

A. Protein Change Reaction
B. Polymerase Chain Reaction
C. Positive Charge Reaction:
D. Preliminary Change Rate

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Question 21

PCR amplifies millions of copies of

A. a short fragment of DNA
B. the entire genome (all the DNA in a sample)
C. both (a) and (b)
D. short chain RNA

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Question 22

DNA fragments in a restriction digest can be separated by electrophoresis in

A. poly acrylamide
B. agarose gel
C. both (a) and (b)
D. none of these

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Question 23

The original enzyme(s) used in PCR reaction is/are known as

A. E. coli DNA polymerase
B. E. coli RNA polymerase
C. Taq polymerase
D. all of these

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Question 24

The cloning step in PCR/sequencing analysis of microbial communities is necessary for

A. the amplification process
B. preventing contamination by outside DNA
C. separating the different rRNA gene sequences in the mixture
D. none of these

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Question 25

PCR can be used in

A. cloning
B. sequencing
C. medical diagnosis and forensic medicine
D. all of the above

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Question 26

Northern blotting is

A. widely different than southern blotting
B. another name for southern blotting
C. analogous to southern blotting
D. none of the above

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Question 27

PCR can generate large amounts of DNA.

A. True
B. False

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Question 28

Thermus aquatics is the source of _________.

A. Vent polymerase
B. Primase enzyme
C. Taq polymerase
D. both a and c

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Question 29

The cloning step in PCR/sequencing analysis of microbial communities is necessary for

A. the amplification process
B. preventing contamination by outside DNA
C. separating the different rRNA gene sequences in the mixture
D. None of these

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Question 30

Specialized transduction occurs when

A. the bacteriophage incorporates randomly in the bacterial chromosome
B. the bacteriophage never incorporates into the bacterial chromosome
C. the bacteriophage always incorporates at the same position in the bacterial chromosome
D. none of the above

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Question 31

Bacteriophages are

A. cells in the blood that eat bacteria
B. a class of bacteria
C. bacterial viruses
D. none of the above

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Question 32

PCR can be used to amplify a specific fragment of DNA from which of the following?

A. A drop of blood
B. A hair follicle
C. A fragment of skin
D. All of these

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Question 33

The PCR/sequencing approach to rRNA is most likely to give information about

A. the species to which the bacteria are most closely related
B. morphology of the bacterium
C. the type of energy metabolism the bacterium has
D. whether the bacterium is motile

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Question 34

For gene transfer to be effective, transforming DNA must be

A. incorporated into the bacterial chromosome
B. incorporated into a viral genome
C. free in the bacterial cytoplasm
D. none of the above

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Question 35

Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) was invented by ______________________

A. Kary Mullis
B. James Watson
C. John Hopkins
D. Hargobind Khorana

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Question 36

Genomic libraries are made from

A. genomic DNA of an organism
B. genomic RNA of an organism
C. genomic cDNA of an organism
D. genomic mRNA of an organism

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Question 37

The template for PCR is

A. RNA
B. single stranded DNA
C. double stranded DNA
D. None of these

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Question 38

Bacteriophage Lambda is a major cloning vector.

A. True
B. False

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Question 39

A PCR cycle consists of

A. three steps, denaturation, primer annealing and elongation
B. three steps, denaturation, initiation and elongation
C. three steps, primer annealing, elongation and termination
D. three steps, initiation, elongation and termination

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Question 40

PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction) can make multiple copies of

A. DNA
B. RNA
C. protein
D. carbohydrate

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Question 41

The PCR, polymerase chain reaction is becoming the method of choice for

A. Alteration of gene
B. screening gene
C. sterilization of gene
D. all of these

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Question 42

What technique can be used to determine the murderer who left blood with the victim?

A. DNA sequencing
B. PCR amplification
C. Western blot
D. RFLP mapping

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Question 43

The efficiency of amplification in PCR in later cycles is reduced due to

A. reduction in substrate concentration
B. insufficient enzyme and time to synthesize mass quantity of DNA
C. build up of PCR product which competes with primers for hybrid formation
D. All of the above

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Question 44

In a PCR reaction after four cycles, each molecule of a duplex DNA will give rise to

A. 16 single strands of DNA
B. 16 double stranded DNA
C. 18 single strands of DNA
D. 18 double stranded DNA

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Question 45

The viruses that can achieve neoplastic transformation are called

A. DNA tumor viruses
B. RNA tumor viruses
C. retroviruses HIV
D. none of these

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Question 46

Viral-mediated gene transfer is called _______________

A. conjugation
B. transduction
C. transformation
D. transversion

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Question 47

Taq polymerase is a ________________________ polymerase.

A. heat-stable
B. buffering
C. denaturant
D. large

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Question 48

Double stranded DNA denaturation with specified limit of temperature is

A. reversible reaction
B. irreversible reaction
C. either (a) or (b)
D. none of these

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Question 49

Which of the following infection(s) can be diagnosed by the use of polymerase chain reaction?

A. HIV-1 and HIV-2 viruses B. Hepatitis B C.
B. virus
C. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
D. All of the above

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Question 50

Molecular beacons are short ____________________

A. polysaccarides
B. monosaccharides
C. oligonucleotides
D. phospholipids

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Question 51

The PCR technique was developed by_________

A. Kohler
B. Altman
C. Milstein
D. Kary Mullis

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Question 52

The temperature cycles in a polymerase chain reaction are in the order __________________

A. 95°, 60°, 72°
B. 60°, 72°, 95°
C. 72°, 60°, 95°
D. 95°, 72°, 60°

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Question 53

The process of introducing DNA into cells is called ____________________

A. blotting
B. conjugation
C. transfection
D. conduction

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Question 54

To clone into a plasmid vector, both the plasmid and the foreign DNA are cut

A. with the same restriction enzyme and mixed together
B. with different restriction enzyme and mixed together
C. with the combination of enzymes and then seperated
D. with the combination of enzymes and mixed together

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Question 55

How many ds DNA molecule can be produced, which comprise precisely the target region in double strand form during 4th cycle of PCR?

A. Two ds DNA molecule
B. Three ds DNA molecule
C. Eight ds DNA molecule
D. Four ds DNA molecule

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