Polymerase Chain Reaction MCQs : This section focuses on the "Polymerase Chain Reaction". These Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) should be practiced to improve the Polymerase Chain Reaction skills required for various interviews (campus interview, walk-in interview, company interview), placement, entrance exam and other competitive examinations.
Question 1
Which of the following infection(s) can be diagnosed by the use of polymerase chain reaction?
A. HIV-1 and HIV-2 viruses B. Hepatitis B C.
B. virus
C. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
D. All of the above
Question 2
Polymerase chain reaction basically consists of
A. two steps
B. three steps
C. four steps
D. five steps
Question 3
The PCR/sequencing approach to rRNA is most likely to give information about
A. the species to which the bacteria are most closely related
B. morphology of the bacterium
C. the type of energy metabolism the bacterium has
D. whether the bacterium is motile
Question 4
The efficiency of amplification in PCR in later cycles is reduced due to
A. reduction in substrate concentration
B. insufficient enzyme and time to synthesize mass quantity of DNA
C. build up of PCR product which competes with primers for hybrid formation
D. All of the above
Question 5
The original enzyme(s) used in PCR reaction is/are known as
A. E. coli DNA polymerase
B. E. coli RNA polymerase
C. Taq polymerase
D. All of the above
Question 6
RNA populations can also be used as PCR templates after reverse transcription into
A. c DNA
B. t RNA
C. m DNA
D. r RNA
Question 7
The cloning step in PCR/sequencing analysis of microbial communities is necessary for
A. the amplification process
B. preventing contamination by outside DNA
C. separating the different rRNA gene sequences in the mixture
D. None of these
Question 8
The template for PCR is
A. RNA
B. single stranded DNA
C. double stranded DNA
D. None of these
Question 9
The PCR technique was developed by_________
A. Kohler
B. Altman
C. Milstein
D. Kary Mullis
Question 10
Thermus aquatics is the source of _________.
A. Vent polymerase
B. Primase enzyme
C. Taq polymerase
D. both a and c
Question 11
In a PCR reaction after four cycles, each molecule of a duplex DNA will give rise to
A. 16 single strands of DNA
B. 16 double stranded DNA
C. 18 single strands of DNA
D. 18 double stranded DNA
Question 12
PCR can be used to amplify a specific fragment of DNA from which of the following?
A. A drop of blood
B. A hair follicle
C. A fragment of skin
D. All of these
Question 13
Northern blotting is
A. widely different than southern blotting
B. another name for southern blotting
C. analogous to southern blotting
D. none of the above
Question 14
Bacteriophages are
A. cells in the blood that eat bacteria
B. a class of bacteria
C. bacterial viruses
D. none of the above
Question 15
PCR amplifies millions of copies of
A. a short fragment of DNA
B. the entire genome (all the DNA in a sample)
C. both (a) and (b)
D. short chain RNA
Question 16
Bactriophages absorb to a bacterial surface and inject the phage DNA through the
A. cell wall into cytosol
B. cell wall into plasmamembrane
C. both (a) and (b)
D. cell wall into endoplasmic reticulum
Question 17
DNA fragments in a restriction digest can be separated by electrophoresis in
A. poly acrylamide
B. agarose gel
C. both (a) and (b)
D. none of these
Question 18
Which of the following is correct?
A. HIV is a retrovirus that kills human helper T cells
B. Causes acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS)
C. Cripples the immunity systems
D. All of the above
Question 19
Restriction maps
A. allows comparison between DNA molecules without the need to determine nucleotide sequence
B. allows comparison between DNA molecules but requires to determine nucleotide sequence
C. does not allow comparison between DNA molecules
D. none of the above
Question 20
How many ds DNA molecule can be produced, which comprise precisely the target region in double strand form during 4th cycle of PCR?
A. Two ds DNA molecule
B. Three ds DNA molecule
C. Eight ds DNA molecule
D. Four ds DNA molecule
Question 21
Double stranded DNA denaturation with specified limit of temperature is
A. reversible reaction
B. irreversible reaction
C. either (a) or (b)
D. none of these
Question 22
Additional mono saccharides are added in Golgi to produce
A. either high mannose type oligosaccharide or a complex type
B. either fructose type monosaccharide or a complex type
C. either high sucrose type polysaccharide or a complex type
D. none of the above
Question 23
Southern blotting involves
A. electrophoresis of DNA molecules and then blotting the separated DNA bands followed by incubation
B. electrophoresis of DNA molecules and then blotting the separated RNA bands followed by incubation
C. electrophoresis of DNA molecules followed by incubation
D. electrophoresis of RNA molecules and then blotting the separated RNA bands followed by incubation
Question 24
For gene transfer to be effective, transforming DNA must be
A. incorporated into the bacterial chromosome
B. incorporated into a viral genome
C. free in the bacterial cytoplasm
D. none of the above
Question 25
Genomic libraries are made from
A. genomic DNA of an organism
B. genomic RNA of an organism
C. genomic cDNA of an organism
D. genomic mRNA of an organism
Question 26
PCR can be used in
A. cloning
B. sequencing
C. medical diagnosis and forensic medicine
D. all of the above
Question 27
Transformation means
A. formation of a pilus
B. acquiring DNA from the bacterial cell environment
C. plasmid containing a F factor
D. F+ and F- strains of bacteria
Question 28
PCR is an abbreviation for
A. Protein Change Reaction
B. Polymerase Chain Reaction
C. Positive Charge Reaction:
D. Preliminary Change Rate
Question 29
PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction) can make multiple copies of
A. DNA
B. RNA
C. protein
D. carbohydrate
Question 30
The viruses that can achieve neoplastic transformation are called
A. DNA tumor viruses
B. RNA tumor viruses
C. retroviruses HIV
D. none of these
Question 31
The PCR, polymerase chain reaction is becoming the method of choice for
A. Alteration of gene
B. screening gene
C. sterilization of gene
D. all of these
Question 32
Specialized transduction occurs when
A. the bacteriophage incorporates randomly in the bacterial chromosome
B. the bacteriophage never incorporates into the bacterial chromosome
C. the bacteriophage always incorporates at the same position in the bacterial chromosome
D. none of the above
Question 33
From a single molecule of DNA, PCR can make
A. one additional copy
B. hundreds of copies
C. thousands of copies
D. millions of copies
Question 34
A PCR cycle consists of
A. three steps, denaturation, primer annealing and elongation
B. three steps, denaturation, initiation and elongation
C. three steps, primer annealing, elongation and termination
D. three steps, initiation, elongation and termination
Question 35
PCR is used
A. to diagnose genetic diseases
B. to solve crimes
C. to study gene function
D. all of these
Question 36
What technique can be used to determine the murderer who left blood with the victim?
A. DNA sequencing
B. PCR amplification
C. Western blot
D. RFLP mapping
Question 37
To clone into a plasmid vector, both the plasmid and the foreign DNA are cut
A. with the same restriction enzyme and mixed together
B. with different restriction enzyme and mixed together
C. with the combination of enzymes and then seperated
D. with the combination of enzymes and mixed together
Question 38
The cloning step in PCR/sequencing analysis of microbial communities is necessary for
A. the amplification process
B. preventing contamination by outside DNA
C. separating the different rRNA gene sequences in the mixture
D. none of these
Question 39
The efficiency of amplification in PCR in later cycles is reduced due to
A. reduction in substrate concentration
B. insufficient enzyme and time to synthesize mass quantity of DNA
C. build up of PCR product which competes with primers for hybrid formation
D. all of these
Question 40
The original enzyme(s) used in PCR reaction is/are known as
A. E. coli DNA polymerase
B. E. coli RNA polymerase
C. Taq polymerase
D. all of these
Question 41
Which of the following infection(s) can be diagnosed by the use of polymerase chain reaction?
A. HIV-1 and HIV-2 viruses
B. Hepatitis B virus
C. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
D. All of these
Question 42
Bacterial artificial chromosomes are the __________________ of bacterial cells.
A. Polymerase enzyme
B. Proteases
C. F-factors
D. Exonucleases
Question 43
Bacteriophage Lambda is a major cloning vector.
A. True
B. False
Question 44
cDNA libraries are produced from ______________________
A. ribonucleic acids
B. messenger RNAs
C. transfer RNAs
D. ribosomal RNAs
Question 45
Molecular beacons are short ____________________
A. polysaccarides
B. monosaccharides
C. oligonucleotides
D. phospholipids
Question 46
PCR can generate large amounts of DNA.
A. True
B. False
Question 47
Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) was invented by ______________________
A. Kary Mullis
B. James Watson
C. John Hopkins
D. Hargobind Khorana
Question 48
Taq polymerase is a ________________________ polymerase.
A. heat-stable
B. buffering
C. denaturant
D. large
Question 49
The endonuclease HaeIII recognizes ______________________ sequence.
A. mono-nucleotide
B. bi-nucleotide
C. tri-nucleotide
D. tetra-nucleotide
Question 50
The process of introducing DNA into cells is called ____________________
A. blotting
B. conjugation
C. transfection
D. conduction
Question 51
The temperature cycles in a polymerase chain reaction are in the order __________________
A. 95°, 60°, 72°
B. 60°, 72°, 95°
C. 72°, 60°, 95°
D. 95°, 72°, 60°
Question 52
Viral-mediated gene transfer is called _______________
A. conjugation
B. transduction
C. transformation
D. transversion
Question 53
When was the nucleotide sequence of a viral genome first elucidated?
A. 1977
B. 1988
C. 1999
D. 2002
Question 54
Which enzyme is active at 72° in the polymerase chain reaction?
A. isomerase
B. exonuclease
C. polymerase
D. endonuclease
Question 55
Which of the following can be used to clone DNA sequence of size larger than 25 kb?
A. Yeast artificial chromosome
B. SV40
C. Plasmid
D. Bacteriophage